Saturday, March 11, 2017

Refuting The Immaculate Conception Of Mary

  • The Immaculate Conception Of Mary:
          -According to the Roman Catholic Church, Mary was conceived without the stains of original sin and she therefore led a sinless life. It is claimed that God had to work things out in this fashion so that Jesus could be immaculately conceived.
          -As is usual with distinctively Roman Catholic dogmas, there is no unanimous consensus among the church fathers as to whether or not the immaculate conception is biblical. Dr. Ron Rhodes notes the following, " is a historical fact that a number of the early church fathers such as Origen, Basil, Hillary, John Chrysostom, and Cyril of Alexandria believed that Mary had engaged in sins (such as vanity and ambition) in her life." (Reasoning from the Scriptures with Catholics, p. 296)The Roman Catholic television network called EWTN said"During the middle ages, authors such as St. Bernard of Clairvaux and St. Thomas Aquinas denied the doctrine."
  • A Few Questions:
          -If sinlessness is claimed for Mary so that she could be pure enough to bear Jesus Christ, then such should also be claimed for Mary's mother so that she could be pure enough to bear Mary. This process would have to continue until it reaches its starting point (Eve?). 
          -Why not simply have Mary and Jesus born in a sinless environment?
  • Not Ritually Clean, According To The Old Testament Levitical Law Which Was Still In Effect When Jesus Christ Was Still A Baby:
          -If Mary was sinless, then why was she unclean and had to offer a sacrifice for sin (Luke 2:16; 21-24)? According to the Old Testament, the mother needed purifying after a birth because of the issue of blood (Leviticus 12:1-8)--she was ritually unclean.
  • All Have Sinned And Fallen Short Of God's Glory:
          -All have fallen short of God's perfect standard of morality (Romans 3:10-12; 23; 5:12) and are therefore in need of a perfect atonement sacrifice, which is Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:2; 1 John 3:5). "All" includes Mary. She clearly calls the Lord her Savior in Luke 1:46-47 and thus testifies against her own alleged immaculate conception and sinlessness. The truth of the matter is that there was only one Person who was tempted by the devil and successfully resisted sin throughout His entire life, Jesus Christ (Hebrews 4:14-16). For this reason, people such as Adam and Eve, babies, and the mentally handicapped are not true exceptions to the rule "all have sinned". While the Scriptures explicitly teach the sinless nature of Jesus Christ, they are unforthcoming when it comes to Mary being immaculately conceived.
  • Only Jesus Was Conceived Without Sin And Led A Sinless Life:
          -Jesus was miraculously conceived inside the womb of Mary, who was a virgin at the time (Isaiah 7:14). He was immune from sin because He is God in the flesh (Colossians 2:9). 


  1. This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.

    1. George,

      Yes, vs 24 does mean "all," but the context is that the "all" of vs 23 can only be saved if the appropriate the sacrifice of Christ for themselves -- it isn't automatic just because Christ paid for our sins; one has to accept it personally, and the is stated over and over throughout the N.T.

      Mary was not born "immaculate." There is nothing in Scripture which even hints at such nonsense.