Monday, May 21, 2018
A Quick Refutation Of King James/Textus Receptus Onlyism
-If the Textus Receptus is inerrant, then why is it missing the last six verses of the Book of Revelation, which are included in the King James Version? Why would Erasmus need to back translate them from Latin into Greek so that he could translate them into English (even producing variants with no manuscript support)? Why does the King James Version contain a translation error in Revelation 22:19 ("book of life")?